If God's Eternal Law Has Been Abolished...?

By Brother R. Michel Lankford
As unfathomable as it sounds, many Christians today are taught that the Laws, Commandments, Regulations and Instructions which Almighty God said were eternal regulations, have been abolished at the cross. The problem with this incredibly false doctrine is that there is an enormous amount of Scripture throughout The Whole Testament that absolutely refutes this notion. Yet, despite overwhelming scriptural evidence to the contrary, people still believe and teach that God’s eternal Laws, Commandments, and Instructions have been abolished at the cross.
In point of fact, apart from twisting the letters and teachings of Paul the apostle (2 Peter 3:14-18), there is not a single Biblical witness which even suggests that God's eternal Laws, Commandments and Instructions, have even been suspended, let alone abolished.
Moreover, even Paul the apostle openly testified that he still believed EVERYTHING taught by the Law and the prophets, (Acts 24:14-16; Acts 25:7-8). So by his own testimony, even Paul the apostle denies the assertion that he taught that the Laws and Commandments of God were abolished. Therefore, when we teach that Paul says that the laws and Commandments of God were suspended or even abolished, we are in fact speaking in direct contradiction to what Paul said about himself and his ministry.
From a Biblical standpoint, the false doctrine leads to a serious legal problem. Scripture is very clear that EVERY TRUTH MUST be firmly established by the mouths of two or three witnesses (Deuteronomy 19:15; 1 Timothy 5:19; Hebrews 10:28). The apostle Paul is the only biblical witness that even remotely APPEARS to suggest that God’s law and Commandments have been abolished, but even Paul DENIES that this is what he taught. Therefore, no matter how widely accepted this assertion may be, the idea that Almighty God abolished His eternal Laws, Commandments, and Instructions at the cross, CANNOT possibly be deemed to be sound doctrine.
Careful study of the Scriptures clearly shows that Paul was ONLY refuting the false doctrines of rabbinical Judaism which erroneously taught that obeying the Law together WITH obeying the rabbinical oral tradition of the rabbis and elders is what CAUSED or brought about a person’s salvation. Paul refuted this false doctrine in his day, because he knew the Scriptures taught that our righteousness could never be achieved by our own works (Isaiah 64:6). Paul believed as the Scriptures teach that obeying God Law and Commandments comes AFTER salvation through Messiah, and not before it (Ezekiel 36:25-27). Obedience does not cause our salvation, but true salvation will always cause our obedience to God's laws and Commandments. Paul never advocated violating God’s Laws and Commandments to prove our faith in Christ.
Please consider this question: Is it very likely or even possible for a person to be doing the will of Almighty God if they are choosing to live a lifestyle that is consistently contrary to God's Laws, Commandments and Instructions? In other words can a person who consistently chooses to live a lifestyle that does what God says, "Do Not Do," or if they choose to consistently refuse to do what God says to do, can that person truly be said to be doing the will of God? The answer is obviously, "NO." God cannot deny himself (2 Timothy 2:13). All of God's Laws Commandments and Instructions are a direct reflection of Who and What God is, therefore violating God's Word, CANNOT be doing God’s will.
Keeping this principle in mind, what follows is a series of "IF/THEN" statements, which clearly highlight the problem with this erroneous doctrine. This is not by any means an exhaustive list, but it's enough to get you started asking some pretty hard questions and studying it for yourself.
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why did MESSIAH HIMSELF say that He did not do so (Matthew 5:17-20)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why does Almighty God make obeying His Commandments the sign that indicates our love for Him, throughout the Whole Testament, (Exodus 20:6; Deuteronomy 5:10; Deuteronomy 7:9; Deuteronomy 11:1; Deuteronomy 11:22; Deuteronomy 19:9; Deuteronomy 30:16; Joshua 22:5; Nehemiah 1:5; Nehemiah 13:22; Daniel 9:4; John 14:15; John 14:21; John 15:10; 1 John 5:2-3)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why does Jesus say that only those who DO Almighty God the Heavenly Father's will are to be identified as members of his family (Matthew 12:46-50)? Notice further that believing in Jesus does not automatically make us into children of God. It gives us the POWER TO BECOME the children of God (John 1:12), because the power of the Holy Spirit will empower us to do the will and word of God (Ezekiel 36:25-27; Philippians 2:13).
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why is LAWLESSNESS, [living a lifestyle outside of God's Laws and Instructions], why does Messiah still condemn LAWLESSNESS on the future day of judgment, (Matthew 7:21-23)? If the Law has been done away with, then how can anyone still be called lawless on the future day of judgment?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why is it prophesied that God’s Law will be taught during the millennial reign of Messiah; (Isaiah 2:3; Micah 4:2)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why is it prophesied that the LAW will be written upon our hearts? Why would a law be written on our heart during the new covenant, which supposedly made the LAW obsolete? (Jeremiah 31:33)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why is God's Law given the same name and titles as Messiah Himself. The Law is referred to as EVERLASTING and "TRUTH" (Psalm 119:42 cf. John 14:6)? Did the resurrected and everlasting Messiah abolish Himself?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why does our faith in Christ establish the Law, even after Christ's resurrection (Romans 3:31)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why does the apostle Paul's still call it Holy (meaning set apart for God's holy use)? Why does Paul call it righteous? Why does Paul still call the Law GOOD, and spiritual, long after the death and resurrection of Messiah, (Romans 7:12, 14)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why did the apostle Paul continue to delight in God's Law, (Romans 7:22)? Would Paul truly delight in the Law that he thought was obsolete?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why did Paul teach that the Old Testament was written for OUR INSTRUCTION (Romans 15:4)? Paul wrote this well after the resurrection of Messiah. If something has truly become worthless and obsolete, can it still instruct us how to live for God correctly?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why did the apostle Paul teach that ALL SCRIPTURE, and not just some of it, was profitable (2 Timothy 3:16-17)? In fact, when Paul referred to Scripture, to what was Paul referring? Most of the New Testament was not written, nor was it being widely distributed at the time. Only the so-called Old Testament was widely known to be Scripture. So if the law was done away with, then why would Paul teach that it was CURRENTLY PROFITABLE for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, and to make someone completely equipped for every good work? Could a Law that was truly obsolete continue to do what Paul said it could?

Moreover, if the apostle Paul was truly teaching that God’s Law and Commandments were abolished at the cross, then why did he claim he never taught or walked that way (Acts 24:14-16; Acts 25:7-8; Acts 28:14-17)?
Moreover, if the apostle Paul truly taught that the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ did away with the Laws, Commandments and instructions of God as so many claim, then how is it that the Bereans were able to check the Old Testament Scriptures, (which is all they would have had), and by them verify that Paul's testimony concerning Jesus Christ was true? If Paul was teaching that the eternal laws of God were now abolished through the cross, then would the Bereans have verified and believed him using only the Old Testament, (Acts 17:11)? The Old Testament was all that the Bereans had to verify Paul's teachings. If Paul was truly teaching that the Laws of God have been abolished, the Bereans would've considered him a false teacher and would not have believed Paul (Deuteronomy 13:1-4; Isaiah 8:20).
Moreover, If Paul was truly teaching that the Law and customs which God handed down to Moses were done away with at the cross, then why did he instruct the Corinthian church (a predominantly Gentile congregation) to observe the feast of Passover and unleavened bread (1 Corinthians 5:8)?
Moreover, if Paul was truly teaching that the Law and customs which God handed down to Moses is now abolished then why did Paul still refer to it as being GOOD when it is used properly, even years after the resurrection of Messiah (1 Timothy 1:8)?
Moreover, if Paul was teaching that God law was now abolished, then why did he consider himself still bound to it (Romans 7:25)? Moreover, in the context of Romans chapter 7, we see that Paul considered being bound to God’s Law a good thing.
Moreover, if Paul was teaching that God law is now abolished, then why did Paul teach that it was still being used to define what sin is, (Romans 7:7)? Can an obsolete measure be used to define something properly?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are No longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why did the apostle Paul teach that it was still good enough to make a person wise unto salvation, and that it brought Timothy into faith in Christ (2 Timothy 3:15)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why does the apostle James still call it PERFECT, and the LAW OF LIBERTY even after the death and resurrection of Messiah (James 1:25; James 2:12)?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why are we commanded to walk before God in the same manner that Jesus Christ walked (1 John 2:6)? Jesus kept God's Law and honored the teachings of the prophets. If we are truly walking as Jesus walked, wouldn't we do the same?
IF the death and resurrection of Messiah completed, finished and abolished God's Laws and Commandments, so that believers are no longer obligated to obey them today as so many claim, then why did the beloved apostle John write that SIN IS THE TRANSGRESSION OF THE LAW (or living lawlessly, 1 John 3:4)? God caused John to write this between circa 27 to 57 (years AFTER the death, the resurrection of Messiah, and the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. So if God's Law and the prophets were NOT considered to be done away with or abolished even 27 years after Jesus Christ was resurrected from the dead, exactly when was the Law abolished? Answer: It has not been, (cf. Romans 3:31).
Brother R. Michel Lankford